PRUEBAS DE ACCESO A LA UNIVERSIDAD PARA ALUMNOS DE

Transcripción

UNIVERSIDAD DE MURCIA
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CONSEJERÍA DE EDUCACIÓN Y
UNIVERSIDADES
UNIVERSIDAD POLITÉCNICA DE
CARTAGENA
BACHILLERATO L.O.G.S.E. Junio 2001
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 24
This is part of a letter recently appeared in the advice column of a magazine:
‘A few months ago, I moved into a very small flat after living for years with my parents. It is the
first time I have ever had a place of my own and I am very fond of (1) it. I had been in the flat only
for a few weeks when a friend phoned and practically begged (2) me to let him stay for a while (3).
He explained that he had lost his job but was sure that he would find another one very soon. I
thought it would be only for a short while, so I said yes.
More than a month has gone by (4) since then and my friend shows no sign of moving out. There
are only two small rooms in the flat, plus (5) the small bathroom and tiny kitchen. He has more or
less taken over the front room. What is more, he has brought a lot of clothes and piles of books and
old gramophone records with him and I can hardly get in there any more. I don’t like sharing the
bathroom either.
What would you advise me to do?’
____________
PREGUNTAS (NO ESCRIBIR NADA EN ESTA HOJA DE PREGUNTAS)
Read the preceding text carefully and answer the following questions as specified:
1. Is the writer in a pleasant situation?
Answer and explain your answer in your own words (25-50 words) (2 marks).
2. What would you do if you found yourself in the same situation?
3. Choose the best option. Please, copy the option onto your answer sheet (1 mark):
- His friend has brought too many clothes, books and records, and the writer cannot get into
the flat.
- His friend has brought too many clothes, books and records, but the writer can get into the
flat more easily than before
- His friend has brought too many clothes, books and records, so the writer cannot get into the
front room now.
- The writer cannot get into his bathroom any more.
4.Complete the following sentences, using information from the text. PLEASE AVOID
REPRODUCING PHRASES LITERALLY FROM
THE TEXT, UNLESS THIS IS
UNAVOIDABLE (2 marks):
a. The writer had only recently....
b. The writer enjoyed ....
c. His friend ....
d. The writer is worried .....
5. Complete with one or more adequate words. PLEASE AVOID REPRODUCING WORDS
OR PHRASES LITERALLY FROM THE TEXT (1 mark):
The letter continued like this: ‘A few days ... (a) , I decided that enough was enough and that he
would have... (b) leave. I intended to.... (c) him that I wanted the place to myself again, but
somehow he persuaded ...(d) to let him ..... (e) longer. He still hasn’t moved out.’
6. Relate the words in column A (as marked with numbers in the text) with each of the words
in column B (Ex. be fond of and...') (1 mark):
A
B
be fond of (1)
pass (1)
beg (2)
together with (2)
a while (3)
like (3)
go by (4)
ask (4)
plus (5)
some time (5)
7. Fill in the blanks with one or more adequate words (1 mark):
a. I ..... like to help my friend, but there are limits.
b. I don’t know what ..... if he stays much longer.
c. Unfortunately, he can’t ...... to rent a room of his own.
d. I .... he will be find a job soon so that he can go.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
UNIVERSIDADES
CARTAGENA
BACHILLERATO LOGSE. Septiembre 2001
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 24
Dennis is 35 and is a successful lawyer (1) . He says he would like to get married. Why hasn’t he
done so yet? This is his answer (2):
‘Hmm ... that isn’t easy to answer. Several times I’ve met a woman who seemed (3) the right
person at first. But, for some reason or other, it has never worked out. Take Cynthia, for example.
She was intelligent as well as beautiful and came from the right social background, too. But then I
found out (4) that she was still seeing an old boyfriend of hers. She had told me that her relationship
with him was all over. Obviously, when I found out she had lied to me, I simply couldn’t trust (5)
her any more. And, of course, that meant we couldn’t possibly get married.
Or take Sarah. I think I really loved her very deeply. But ... well ... unfortunately she didn’t share
my religious views. I expect the woman I finally marry to agree with me on such basic things as
that. Does that sound old-fashioned?
Will I ever meet a woman that I can really love? I still hope I will. I suppose I have just been a
bit unlucky so far.’
1. Why did Dennis leave Cynthia and Sarah?
2. Would you like to marry? Why (or why not)?
3. Choose the best option. Please copy the complete option onto your answer sheet (1 mark):
- Sarah sounded old-fashioned.
- Dennis expected Sarah to share his religious views.
- Dennis loved Sarah very deeply because of her religious views.
- Dennis finally married a woman that agreed with him on such basic things.
REPRODUCING PHRASES FROM LITERALLY THE TEXT, UNLESS THIS IS
a. Dennis has not got married yet....
b. Cynthia.....
c. Sarah.....
d. Dennis wonders.....
5. Complete with one or more adequate words, using information from the text. PLEASE
AVOID REPRODUCING WORDS OR PHRASES LITERALLY FROM THE TEXT (1
mark):
Julia is 26 years old and is very good at her job as a financial analyst. But .... (a) one aspect of her
life which is beginning to worry ... (b): ‘Somehow it seems to happen again and again. I .... (c) an
attractive, intelligent man, and fall ... (d) him. At first, everything is wonderful. But, after a while, I
begin to notice small, irritating things about him. Then, I begin to feel I ... (e) really love him at all.’
in column B (Ex. ‘rather and...') (1 mark).
A
lawyer (1)
answer (2)
seem (3)
find out (4)
trust (5)
B
reply
look
believe in someone’s honesty or reliability
discover
barrister (5)
7. Fill in the blanks with one or more adequate words (1 mark).
a. Dennis ..... the right woman for him.
b. Dennis would have married Cynthia if she had ..... to him.
c. One ..... know the other person very well before marrying.
d. One needs ... to find the right person to marry.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CULTURA
CARTAGENA
BACHILLERATO LOGSE. Junio 2002
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 24
A Brief History of Soccer
The game of soccer officially began in England in the mid-19th century, and was commonly
associated (1) with exclusive private schools. However, social standing could not contain the
popularity of the game, and soccer began to be played and watched by individuals from all social
backgrounds. Football clubs and organizations began to appear as early (2) as 1855. Shortly
thereafter the Football Association of London was established (3). As the sport spread throughout
England, it was obvious to all that geographical borders would not contain this spectacular spectator
sport.
Soccer began to spread throughout the world like an infectious disease, and the need to regulate
and standardize this sport arose in the minds of some. FIFA was thus born in 1904. FIFA (the
acronym for the French expression Federation Internationale de Football Association) is the
international body which administers standardized rules of play, and regulates the running (4) of the
World Cup Soccer Competition.
The first World Cup Soccer final was held (5) in 1930, and the winner was Uruguay. The first
women’s world cup final was held in Mexico City in 1971. In 1999 the women’s team of the United
States won the competition to the delight of the world and all Americans.
1. Did soccer become an extremely popular game soon after its birth? Has it continued to
grow in popularity?
2. Are you interested in the present World Cup Soccer final?
- FIFA was born because an infectious disease spread throughout the world.
- FIFA has a French International body.
- The reason why FIFA was born is that this sport arose in the minds of some people.
- FIFA was born in 1904 to standardize and regulate this sport throughout the world.
a. Uruguay....
b. At first, soccer ....
c. The 1999 women’s cup....
d. From England, .....
The effects of World War II prevented this soccer competition ... (a) being run in 1942 and 1946,
but it was fitting that the first team to win the cup after the cessation of the war ... (b) the first team
to win the cup when the competition was first run — Uruguay. The World Cup Soccer Competition
had in effect been re-born despite the calamities of World War II. The World Cup has been ... (c)
every four years since the end of the war. The popularity of soccer ... (d) each year, providing .... (e)
enjoyment for players and spectators.
in column B (Ex. be fond of and...') (1 mark):
A
associated (1)
early (2)
establish (3)
running (4)
be held (5)
B
soon
set up
organization
take place
connected
a. My brother ... football very much, but I hate it.
b. Joseph Blatter has ... re-elected as president of FIFA.
c. Spain never ... the World Cup finals.
d. A .... is soccer-related violence.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CULTURA
CARTAGENA
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 24
A LETTER
(This letter was published with Graham Greene’s novel The Quiet American, a story set in Vietnam)
Dear René and Phuong,
I have asked permission to dedicate this book to you not only in memory of the happy (1) evenings
I have spent with you in Saigon over the last few years, but also because I have quite shamelessly
borrowed the location of your flat to house* one of my characters, and your name, Phuong, for the
convenience of readers because it is simple, beautiful, and easy to pronounce, which is not true of
all of your country-women’s names. You will both realize (2) I have borrowed little else, certainly
not the characters of anyone in Vietnam. Pyle, Granger, Fowler, Vigot, Joe — these have had no
originals in the life of Saigon or Hanoi, and General Thé is dead: shot (3) in the back, so they say.
Even the historical events have been rearranged. For example, the big bomb near the Continental
preceded (4) and did not follow the bicycle bombs. I have no scruples about such small (5) changes.
This is a story and not a piece of history, and I hope that as a story about a few imaginary characters
it will pass for both of you one hot Saigon evening.
Yours affectionately,
Graham Greene
--------* house: (verb) provide a house for someone
Read the preceding text carefully and answer the following questions, as specified:
1 Are most of the people in the story real or imaginary characters, according to Graham
Greene?
2. Do you like writing letters to your family and friends?
3. Choose the best option. Please copy the complete option on your answer sheet (1 mark).
- The writer wants to dedicate his book to his friends only because he had a good time with them
- The writer wants to dedicate his book to his friends because he had a good time with them and
because he had used the location of their flat and Phuong’s name in his story.
- The writer does not want to dedicate the book to his friends at all.
- Graham Greene wants to dedicate the book only to a few imaginary characters, even though some
historical events were rearranged.
4. Complete the sentences using information from the text. PLEASE DO NOT REPRODUCE
LITERALLY PHRASES FROM THE TEXT, UNLESS THIS IS UNAVOIDABLE (2 marks):
a. Phuong....
b. Graham Greene...
c. The story...
d. History ...
5. Complete with one or more adequate words, using information from the text. PLEASE
AVOID REPRODUCING LITERALLY WORDS OR PHRASES FROM THE TEXT (1
mark):
Graham Greene was born ..... (a) 1904 and ...... (b) Berkhamsted School, where.... (c) father was
the headmaster. After his Oxford degree, he ..... (d) for four years .... (e) sub-editor on The Times.
He established his reputation with his fourth novel, Stamboul train.
6. Relate one word or expression in column A (as numbered in the text) with the
corresponding word or expression in column B (Ex.:"happy and..." (1 mark):
A
happy (1)
realize (2)
shoot (3)
precede (4)
small (5)
B
kill
come before
glad
minor, little
notice
a. ‘Have...... the novel I lent you last week?’ ‘Yes, and I liked it very much’
b. I ..... very little about Vietnam.
c. John ........ an incredible story last Saturday.
d. My father ..... history to fiction.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CONSEJERÍA DE EDUCACIÓN Y CULTURA
CARTAGENA
BACHILLERATO LOGSE. Junio 2003
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 24
BLAIR WANTS EU PRESIDENT (BBC NEWS; PUBLISHED: 2003/04/17)
Prime Minister Tony Blair has outlined his vision for a full-time EU president giving the
union a more powerful (1) voice on the world stage.
Mr Blair argued that an enlarged EU* of 25 member states needed (2) a full-time figurehead**,
rather than the current rotating leadership. One government official summed up the position by
saying the EU leader would be “someone the White House can call”. Mr Blair unveiled*** his plan
for an EU president at a European Union summit in Athens on Wednesday.
While the proposal is likely to bring him closer (3) to both France and Germany, who support the
idea, Romano Prodi, the European Commission President, feared (4) the move could
undermine**** his role. Mr Prodi told reporters that huge (5) efforts had been made to make the
EU more efficient and effective from 2004 when 10 more members will be ushered in to create a
25-nation bloc.
However, there was almost unanimous agreement on Wednesday that the EU should have a
future “foreign minister”, whose job would combine the posts held by Chris Patten, the EU external
relations Commissioner, and by Javier Solana, the EU's “High Representative”, effectively working
under control of EU governments.
___________
* EU: European Union.
** figurehead: a person who is in a high position in a country or an organization but who has no
real power or authority.
*** to unveil (a plan) : to show or introduce a new plan to the public for the first time.
**** to undermine: (here) to make something weaker
1. Has a the idea of a full-time EU president been proposed? Who is in favor of this proposal
and who is against it? Has the idea of an EU foreign minister been proposed? Who is in favor
of this proposal and who is against it?
2. Do you think the EU will be really efficient with 25 member states?
3. Choose the best option. Please copy the option onto your answer sheet (1 mark):
- Javier Solana has been appointed as the future EU foreign minister, who will combine his job
with Chris Patten’s.
- Chris Patten would combine his post with the job of an external relations Commissioner.
- The future EU foreign minister would be a combination of the posts held nowadays by Chris
Patten and Javier Solana.
- The future EU foreign minister would have to coordinate Chris Patten and Javier Solana.
a. A full-time EU president...
b. Tony Blair....
c. France and Germany....
d. In 2004, .....
Another problem is Britain’s attitude to the euro. A prominent member of the Labour
government, Gordon Brown, has recently ... (a) that there will not be a referendum on the Euro in
Britain in the next two years. On the other hand, Chris Bryant, an important member of the Labour
party, ... (b) BBC Radio 4 that “we would be doing irreparable damage to this country’s economic
prosperity if we ... (c) the door on a euro referendum now”. But Gisela Stuart, another prominent
member of the Labour party, ... (d) economic conditions are not really favourable, and that it will ...
(e) difficult to have a referendum in the near future.
in column B (Ex. powerful and...') (1 mark):
A
powerful (1)
need (2)
close (3)
fear (4)
huge (5)
B
near
be afraid
(here) influential
enormous
require
a. Lots of people .... Blair for his support of the war on Irak.
b. Most of the 10 new EU members are ... than the present 15 members.
c. Romano Prodi is afraid that ... part of his power with a new EU president.
d. Spain .... less money from the EU after the new members join it.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 24
DR. ATKINS’ DIET
Dr. Robert C. Atkins died on April 17, 2003. He had suffered a severe head injury on April 8
after falling on an icy sidewalk (1) while walking to work. He was 72.
Atkins first advocated his heterodox weight-loss plan —which emphasizes meat, eggs and
cheese and discourages bread, rice and fruit— in his 1972 book, “Dr. Atkins’ Diet Revolution.” Its
publication came at a time when the medical establishment was encouraging (2) a low-fat, highcarbohydrate diet. Most doctors argued that Atkins’ diet could affect kidney function, raise (3)
cholesterol levels and deprive the dieter of important nutrients. Despite (4) this, his books sold 15
million copies, and millions of people tried the diet. Atkins’ philosophy enjoyed a resurgence in the
1990s with “Dr. Atkins’ New Diet Revolution,” which sold more than 10 million copies worldwide.
This year, his approach received some support from some half-dozen studies, which showed that
people on the Atkins diet lost weight without endangering their health, and that their overall
cholesterol levels changed for the better. Still, many of the researchers were reluctant* to
recommend the Atkins diet, saying a large new study now in progress could settle (5) persistent
questions of its long-term effects.
-----* be reluctant to: be hesitant to, be disinclined to.
1. What did Dr Atkins’ diet consist of and how was it received by doctors and by ordinary
people ?
2. Do you think people should watch their weight?
- Dr Atkins died on April 17, 2003. He had suffered a severe offense from a sidewalk.
- Dr Atkins died on April 17, 2003, nine days after he had a serious accident.
- Dr Atkins died on April 17, 2003. When he died, he was walking to work.
- Dr Atkins died the day he fell on an icy sidewalk while walking to work.
a. The medical establishment....
b. According to Atkins....
c. Dr Atkins’ books ....
d. The authors of the recent studies, .....
In 1973, the American Medical Association said that Atkins’ diet ... (a) nutritional nonsense and
Congress ordered Atkins to... (b) to the Senate to ... (c) his diet. To Atkins, the key dietary problem
in obesity was carbohydrates. He ... (d) carbohydrates make some people produce too much insulin,
which in turn causes them to .... (e) fat.
in column B (Ex. sidewalk and...') (1 mark):
A
sidewalk (1)
encourage (2)
raise (3)
despite (4)
settle (5)
B
(here) increase
in spite of
(here) resolve
(here) stimulate, support
pavement
a. My brother ... too much. He should watch his weight.
b. Most doctors say that .... eat a lot of butter, bacon and eggs, you’ll get fat.
c. It is still .... early to know whether Dr Atkins’ diet is right or wrong.
d. A friend of my mother’s ... Dr Atkins’ diet. She is as fat as usual.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
BACHILLERATO LOGSE (PLAN 2002)
Junio 2004
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
A short history of the Internet
The Internet is a network connecting (1) many computer networks and based on a common
system called TCP/IP. From its creation in 1983 it grew rapidly (2) beyond its basically academic origin
into an increasingly commercial and popular medium. Today the Internet connects millions of
computers throughout (3) the world. Web games, web monetary transactions, and virtual museums
are among applications that both extend the network's utility and test the limits of its technology.
The Internet was the result of some visionary thinking by scientists in the early 1960s who saw
great potential value in allowing (4) computers to share information on research and development in
scientific and military fields. Some of these scientists were J.C.R. Licklider, who first proposed a global
network of computers in 1962, Leonard Kleinrock, and Lawrence Roberts.
Roberts was one of the creators of a U.S. Department of Defense program called ARPANET
(Advanced Research Projects Agency Network), established (5) in 1969 to provide a secure
communications network for organizations engaged in defense-related research, a network that would
work even if some of the sites were destroyed by nuclear attack. The Internet had its origin in
ARPANET.
Scientists and academics in other fields began to make use of the network, and finally the
National Science Foundation (NSF) of the United States, which had created a similar and parallel
network called NSFNet, borrowed much of the TCP/IP technology from ARPANET and established a
network of networks capable of handling much greater traffic: The Internet was born.
PREGUNTAS (NO RESPONDER EN ESTA HOJA DE PREGUNTAS)
1. How did the Internet start?
2. Do you often use the Internet? Which are its advantages and its disadvantages?
Answer and explain your answer in your own words (25-50 words) (2 marks)
- The Arpanet was supposed to survive a nuclear attack.
- The Arpanet was established in 1969 although some of its sites were destroyed by nuclear
attack.
- The Arpanet did not use the TCP/IP technology.
- The Arpanet was only used by scientists working for the Department of Defense.
REPRODUCING PHRASES LITERALLY FROM THE TEXT, UNLESS THIS IS UNAVOIDABLE (2
marks):
a. The Internet ...
b. In the early 1960s,...
c. Since 1983,...
d. A very large number of computer networks....
5. Complete with one or more adequate words. PLEASE AVOID REPRODUCING
WORDS OR PHRASES LITERALLY FROM THE TEXT (1 mark):
The World Wide Web ... (a) important element in the Internet. The Web gives users access
to a large number of documents that are connected ... (b) each other by means of hypertext or
hypermedia links. The development of the World Wide Web ... (c) begun in 1989 by Timothy BernersLee and ... (d) colleagues at CERN, an international scientific organization based in Geneva,
Switzerland. By the mid-1990s the World Wide Web .... (e) millions of people.
6. Relate the words in column A (as marked with numbers in the text) with each of
the words in column B (Ex. connect and...') (1 mark):
A
connect (1)
rapidly (2)
throughout (3)
allow (4)
establish (5)
B
let
(here) set up
link, join
quickly
all over
a. The Internet is ... useful for a great many purposes.
b. One of ... dangers of the Internet is the spread of computer viruses.
c. My school has its own website. You .... visit it.
d. Yesterday, I ... fifty emails. Most of them were just spam.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Septiembre 2004
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Abraham Lincoln
Abraham Lincoln was the 16th president of the United States (1861–65). He preserved the
Union during the American Civil War and brought about the emancipation of the slaves.
He was born in 1809 to a very poor family in Kentucky. In December 1816, the Lincoln family
moved to a farm in southwestern Indiana. Abraham helped his father to clear the fields and to take
care (1) of the crops. Both (2) of his parents were almost completely illiterate*, and Abraham himself
received little formal education. In March 1830 the family moved again, this time to Illinois. After his
arrival in Illinois, Lincoln tried his hand at a variety of occupations. At the same time that he worked
hard for a living, he taught himself grammar and mathematics, read whatever (3) he could find, and
studied law. In 1836 he began to practice law and was a very successful lawyer.
After a long political career during which he firmly opposed the extension of slavery in the new
states of the Union, the Republican party named (4) him as their candidate to the Presidency. Lincoln
was elected President on November 6, 1860. Seven slavist states seceded** and formed the
Confederate States of America, which was later (5) joined by other states. Though Lincoln did his best
to avoid it, the American Civil War broke out after the Confederates’ attack on Fort Sumter (South
Carolina).
In 1864 he was re-elected. In 1865, after winning the war, he was assassinated by John Wilkes
Booth in Ford’s Theatre, Washington.
------
*illiterate: someone who does not know how to read or write.
**secede: to separate officially from the rest of the country and become independent.
PREGUNTAS (NO RESPONDER EN ESTA HOJA DE PREGUNTAS)
1. Was it easy for Lincoln to become an important lawyer and politician?
2. What does this biography of Lincoln suggest about the value of hard work?
- Lincoln was against slavery in the new states of the Union.
- Lincoln did not win the war because he was killed during it.
-The Confederate States of America were against slavery.
- The Republican party lost the Presidential election in 1860 because Lincoln was elected
President.
REPRODUCING PHRASES LITERALLY FROM THE TEXT, UNLESS THIS IS UNAVOIDABLE
(2 marks):
a. Abraham Lincoln...
b. Lincoln’s family...
c. The Confederate States of America...
d. As President, Lincoln ...
Among American heroes, Lincoln ... (a) unique appeal for his fellow countrymen and also
for people of other lands. This charm comes ... (b) his remarkable life story (the rise from humble
origins, the dramatic death) and ... (c) personality as well ... (d) from his historical role as saviour
of the Union and emancipator of the slaves. He has been praised especially... (e) his eloquence in
favour of democracy.
6. Relate the words in column A (as marked with numbers in the text) with each of the
words in column B (Ex. take care and...') (1 mark):
A
take care (1)
both (2)
whatever (3)
name (4)
later (5)
B
appoint.
afterwards
the two
be responsible for, look after.
anything or everything that.
a. Lots of people ... Lincoln for his honesty, intelligence and courage.
b. Lincoln ... slavery.
c. Most people ... war, though it is sometimes inevitable.
d. I ... Spain will never have another civil war.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Junio 2005
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Tiny new species of human unearthed
The remains of a tiny and unknown species of human that lived as recently as 13,000 years
ago have been discovered on an Indonesian island. The discovery is the most important
palaeoanthropological find for 50 years and has radically altered (1) the accepted picture of human
evolution. Among other fragments, one complete skeleton, known by the nickname 'Ebu', has
been assigned to the new species Homo floresiensis . Examination of the remains shows members
of the species stood just one metre tall and had a brain no bigger than a grapefruit.
Instead of following a simple evolutionary path (2) culminating in modern humans — Homo
sapiens — the discovery suggests early humans branched into many more forms than previously
thought. The find also shows that small-brained humans could evolve (3) without losing much of
their intelligence.
Accelerator mass spectrometry dating suggests that most of the remains are 18,000 years
old. But some bone fragments could be as young as 13,000 years old. The oldest remains from the
site (4) are 78,000 and 94,000 years old, respectively. This means that Homo floresiensis survived
well beyond the last Neanderthals, which are thought to have disappeared from Europe and
western Asia about 28,000 years ago.
"The most remarkable (5) thing is that there was a time, not so long ago, when two
different human species walked the planet", says Peter Brown from the University of New England,
Australia, who led the team that made the discovery.
PREGUNTAS (NO RESPONDER EN ESTA HOJA)
READ THE TEXT AND ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. BE CAREFUL TO FOLLOW THE
INSTRUCTIONS FOR EACH QUESTION
1. How has the picture of human evolution changed after the discovery of Homo
floresiensis? (25-50 words) You are expected to use information from the text, but please use
your own words (2 marks)
2. From the information in the text, the profession of palaeoanthropologist looks
exciting. Which profession do you find exciting? Why? (25-50 words) Express your own
ideas by using your own words (2 marks)
3. Choose the best option. Please copy the complete correct option on your answer sheet (1
mark)
-
The discovery of Homo floresiensis has led palaeoanthropologists to propose different
origins for European and Asian people.
The finding of Homo floresiensis has resulted into a more complex view on the origin and
development of human beings.
Spectrometric analysis has allowed palaeoanthropologists to conclude that Neanderthals
were direct ancestors of Homo floresiensis .
Palaeoanthropologists have suggested that Homo floresiensis disappeared because their
brains were too small.
4. Complete the following sentences, using information from the text. It is important that
you do not reproduce phrases literally from the text unless this is unavoidable (2 marks)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The maximum height …
A new picture …
Peter Brown …
Although the majority …
5. Complete with one or more adequate words. It is NOT necessary that the complete text is
copied on your answer sheet, only the letter
(a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
followed by the word or
words that you find suitable for the gaps (1 mark)
At first the members of the Indonesian excavation team (a)…… by the small skull they had
discovered. “At the beginning, we thought the skull was from a child”, (b)…… excavation director
Thomas Sutikna of the Indonesian Centre for Archaeology, (c)…… was there when the discovery
was made in September 2003. “But after a week, we checked the molar teeth and (d)……. that
they had already appeared, so we concluded that the skull was (e)…... 14 years old”
6. Relate each of the words in column A (as marked with numbers in the text) with one
word in column B. Please copy the correct pair of related words on your answer sheet, e.g. ‘alter
and….’(1 mark).
A
alter (1)
path (2)
evolve (3)
site (4)
remarkable (5)
B
extraordinary
location
change
develop
(here) direction
7. Fill in the blanks with one or more adequate words. It is NOT necessary that the
complete text is copied on your answer sheet, only the letter
(a), (b), (c), (d)
followed by the
word or words that you find suitable for the gaps (1 mark).
a)
b)
c)
d)
It is amazing that human beings with such small brains…... existed.
Several theories have been proposed on how human beings….. existence.
The disappearance of Neanderthals is still a…… solution.
What really surprises me is that they…… as early as 13,000 years ago.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Septiembre 2005
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
The Global Spread of AIDS
Cases of HIV infection are not evenly (1) distributed around the world. In the industrialized
world, an estimated 1.95 million people are infected with HIV. Early prevention campaigns in the
80s slowed the progression of the disease in the industrialized world, and the development of
antiretroviral drugs has helped ease (2) the suffering of AIDS victims. But a recent reduction in
prevention efforts has led to new higher levels of annual infections.
In Eastern Europe and the former Soviet Union an estimated 270,000 people are infected.
Until a few years ago, cases of HIV infection in that region were very limited. With the collapse (3)
of social and economic structures, HIV is rapidly spreading through the use of drugs and
prostitution. Since 1994, infection rates (4) have tripled.
Of all regions, Sub-Saharan Africa has been hardest hit. This long-suffering region now has
an estimated 22.5 million people infected with HIV. The AIDS epidemic is entering its third decade
in sub-Saharan Africa, and while some countries in this region have had success in controlling the
spread of the disease, in many areas infection rates are out of control. AIDS has become the
leading (5) killer in sub-Saharan Africa. In the most severely affected countries in Africa the AIDS
epidemic has infected 10% of the population, and the life expectancy of a child born between
2000 and 2005 has fallen from 60 years to 43 years.
1. Which is the difference between industrialized countries and the rest as regards the
spread of AIDS? (25-50 words) You are expected to use information from the text, but please
use your own words (2 marks)
2. In your opinion, what should governments do to prevent the spread of AIDS? (25-50
words) Express your own ideas by using your own words (2 marks)
3. Choose the best option. Please copy the complete correct option on your answer sheet (1
mark)
-
Prevention campaigns have succeeded in reducing the spread of HIV infection in the
Western world.
The increase of HIV infection in Eastern Europe may be connected to the new socioeconomic reality of these countries.
Antiretroviral drugs have successfully been used in certain countries of sub-Saharan Africa
to control the spread of HIV infection.
The AIDS epidemic has been present in sub-Saharan Africa for more than forty years now.
4. Complete the following sentences, using information from the text. It is important that
you do not reproduce phrases literally from the text unless this is unavoidable (2 marks)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The use of drugs …
The main reason …
Children from sub-Saharan Africa …
HIV infection …
5. Complete with one or more adequate words. It is NOT necessary that the complete text is
copied on your answer sheet, only the letter
(a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
followed by the word or
words that you find suitable for the gaps (1 mark)
Although the disease did not (a)…… Asia until the late 80s and early 90s, this (b)…… now has 20%
of all infections worldwide. There is increased worry that an explosion in the epidemic (c)……. in
China and India. In India, there are already (d)…… 4 million people infected. This is the (e)……..
number of infected people in a single country.
6. Relate each of the words in column A (as marked with numbers in the text) with one
word in column B. Please copy the correct pair of related words on your answer sheet, e.g. ‘alter
and ….’(1 mark).
A
even(ly) (1)
ease (2)
collapse (3)
rate (4)
leading (5)
B
disintegration
percentage
calm
chief
uniform
7. Fill in the blanks with one or more adequate words. It is NOT necessary that the
complete text is copied on your answer sheet, only the letter
(a), (b), (c), (d)
followed by the
word or words that you find suitable for the gaps (1 mark).
a) I do not think that governments are really…... to solve the problem of AIDS in the world.
b) I do not lose faith that a solution to AIDS is soon……
c) Scientists have proved that AIDS is no longer a homosexual……., but it is spreading quickly
among the heterosexual population.
d) The spread of AIDS infection in Africa is obviously…… the general poor conditions of the
continent.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Junio 2006
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Music, the Internet and Copyrights
Music piracy has existed as long as recording equipment has been available. Distributing
unauthorized copies of copyrighted material, though illegal, has become popular in recent years with
the advent (1) of computers, the internet and technology used to create copies of songs and share
them with other users.
The RIAA, or Recording Industries’ Association of America, is the predominant (2) organization
opposing music piracy. They have undertaken legal action against people offering music online, and
even some who only downloaded songs. The RIAA has published several articles concerning piracy
and copyrights. In one document they state, “Piracy cheats (3) producers, composers, sound
engineers, studio musicians and vocalists by stealing part of the royalties* on which they depend for
their lives”.
It seems, therefore, that distributing and even simply downloading music is against the law.
However, a survey (4) done by Internet & American Life in 2003 shows that 35 million US citizens
download music and 26 million share files online. The survey shows that 67% of users who download
say that they do not care if it is copyrighted, 27% say they do care about copyrights, and 6% either
don’t have a position, or don’t know enough about the issue (5).
____________
* royalties: the percentage that the author of a song, book, etc. receives from the sales of the
product.
1. Link each of the words or expressions listed below with one word or expression in the column (as
numbered in the text) [1 mark]. Please copy the correct pair of words on your answer sheet, e.g.
‘advent and ...’
main
opinion poll
advent (1) and ...
predominant (2) and ...
cheat (3) and ...
survey (4) and ...
issue (5) and ...
deceive
appearance
topic
2. Reading comprehension
2.1. Choose the best option [0.75 marks]. Please copy the complete correct option on your answer
sheet.
- The RIAA believes that producers, composers, musicians and vocalists should work together to
defend their rights
- According to the RIAA, offering music online is the only illegal act that the law should bring action
against
- The RIAA considers that downloading songs from the internet is as illegal as offering music online
- The RIAA proposes that downloading songs from the internet is not legal, but it is not worth that
the law brings action against it
sheet.
-
A majority of US citizens are not properly informed about copyright laws
Most US citizens do not have an opinion about this matter
Only a minority of US citizens download and share files online
Many US citizens do not care about the rights of artists and producers
3. Complete the sentences using information from the text [2 marks]. It is important that phrases
from the text are not reproduced literally, unless this is unavoidable.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Legal action against music piracy ...
The survey ...
If computers and the internet ...
Although it is illegal ...
4. Complete with one or more adequate words [1.5 marks]. Do not copy the complete text on your
sheet, only the letter – (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) – followed by the word or words that you find
suitable for the gap. It is important that phrases from the text are not reproduced literally.
The music industry has been in a decline ... (a) the past few years. ... (b), not all of that decline may
be related to the distribution of unauthorized copies. Instead, the crisis may be ... (c) the state of the
economy. It may also be that in the 1990s, many people ... (d) buying CDs simply to have them in
digital format, and now the sales are returning to normal. Many download music to ... (e) an album,
and if they ... (f) what they hear, they buy that album.
5. The text reveals that there is a conflict between the law and the real behaviour of some people.
Can you summarize both positions in the conflict? (25-50 words) [2 marks] You are expected to draw
information from the text, but please use your own words.
6. What is your opinion about the problem of music piracy? (25-50 words) [2 marks]. Express your
own ideas by using your own words.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Septiembre 2006
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
A brief interview with Andy, from Artic Monkeys by Roman Lawlor
Roman:
Andy:
Roman:
Andy:
Roman:
Andy:
Roman:
Andy:
The name Artic Monkeys, where did it come from?
Alex (lead (1) singer/guitarist) wrote it down in the back of a schoolbook when we
were about 15 and said he wanted a band with that name. So when we started playing
together it was the only option (2).
How did you start playing together?
It all started when we left school and had nothing to do. Alex and Jamie knew each
other, I didn’t know Jamie but I went to school with Matt and Alex. Alex and Jamie
started playing guitar together, and I started playing bass guitar with them. Then Matt
decided to be a drummer, bought drums and learned how to play. We all learned
instruments to be in the band together. And we’re still learning!
Comparisons of your music have varied from The Streets to The Jam. How would you
describe your music?
No one has actually (3) compared us to The Jam yet, that’s great, we’re big Jam fans!
I don’t think I can describe our music. The lyrics are likeThe Streets’ because the
songs are about everyday life, but musically it’s more like Oasis: guitars with distortion
but with a beat (4) behind it, so you can dance too.
Many of your songs fit (5) that description, don’t they?
Yes, we like to have our songs so that you can listen to the lyrics and have them mean
something to you or that you can just listen to the music and think it’s good music. So
you can have one or the other and it still works.
Adapted from http://www.cluas.com/music/features/artic_monkeys_interview
‘lead and ...’
choice
rhythm
match
principal
in fact
lead (1) and ...
option (2) and ...
actually (3) and ...
beat (4) and ...
fit (5) and ...
sheet.
-
All members of Artic Monkeys became friends when they were at school
Alex, Matt and Andy went to school together
Matt, Jamie and Andy all played the same instrument at school
Andy taught Alex and Jamie how to play the guitar at school
sheet.
-
Artic Monkeys are only interested in developing a personal music style
Artic Monkeys intend that their lyrics have meaning for the audience
Artic Monkeys write music so that people dance and have a good time
Artic Monkeys try to keep a balance between meaningful lyrics and enjoyable music
a)
b)
c)
d)
When the four members of Artic Monkeys ...
The name Artic Monkeys ...
It’s the first time ...
In the interview Andy said that ...
Roman:
Andy:
Do you have a problem with people downloading your music … (a) the internet for
free?
No, not at all. Because it’s how we started. We … (b) go into studio and recorded for a
day, came out with three tracks, … (c) all night copying them, then took them to our
concerts and gave them to … (d) for free. Then the songs started … (e) on the net and
people started sharing them. It’s good because people wouldn’t come to our concerts if
they … (f) our songs on the Internet.
5. From the information in the text, which do you think are the reasons for the success of Artic
Monkeys? (25-50 words) [2 marks] You are expected to draw information from the text, but please
use your own words.
6. Which kind of music do you like? Why? (25-50 words) [2 marks]. Express your own ideas by using
your own words.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Junio 2007
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Spain changes sizes in clothes for women
Spain’s biggest fashion retailers (1) have agreed to re-size their clothing in order to better
reflect the real sizes of women and reduce pressure on them to conform (2) to an extremely thin
image. Health Minister Elena Salgado has announced that the National Consumer Institute will
measure 8,500 women between 12 and 70 years of age with the aim of “defining standard patterns
and normalising sizes”, according to an agreement between fashion houses and the ministry.
Companies such as Zara, El Corte Ingles, Mango and Cortefiel are behind the agreement,
which intends to make fashion sizes “truthful, homogeneous and comprehensible (3)”. Mannequins in
shop windows will now be at least a European size 38, while size 46 will no longer be considered
extra-size. Labels will include not just the overall (4) size, but information on hip and shoulder as
well.
The government hopes that by selling more realistic sizes, it will discourage (5) women from
trying to conform to such a thin ideal as is usually presented on fashion catwalks*. “If everything
goes well, as we expect, then of course we will continue with a resizing for men”, Salgado told
reporters.
__________________
* catwalk: a narrow pathway over the stage of a theatre
PREGUNTAS (NO RESPONDAN EN ESTA HOJA)
INSTRUCTION FOR EACH QUESTION
‘retailer and ...’
clear
manufacturer
retailer (1) and …
conform (2) and …
comprehensible (3) and …
overall (4) and …
discourage (5) and …
general
prevent
adjust
sheet.
- A committee will be appointed to decide on the issue of sizing
- The new sizing will be based on the statistical analysis of population
- Fashion houses alone will decide on the new sizing
- The new sizes will depend on the results of a national opinion poll
sheet.
- One result of the agreement is that mannequins will no longer be exhibited in shop windows
- The agreement will imply a radical change in fashion designs
- One consequence of the agreement is that customers will find more information on labels
- The agreement means that small sizes will disappear
a)
b)
c)
d)
If the agreement is successful …
Information on hip and shoulder sizes …
Minister Elena Salgado said that male …
The agreement …
In order to help control weight-related disorders …… (a) anorexia, Spain has also …… (b) models
below a certain weight from Madrid catwalks. In fact, 30% of the women …… (c) appeared at the
Cibeles fashion show in Madrid last year were rejected because they …… (d) adjust to new rules
demanding that models present a healthy image: that is they must weigh at least 56 kilos if their
……(e) is 1.75. These figures are approximately what the World Health Organization …… (f) to be the
minimum healthy weight.
5. The text informs about an agreement between the Spanish Ministry of Health and some Fashion
houses. Can you summarize the basic aims and terms of the agreement? (25-50 words) [2 marks]
You are expected to draw information from the text, but please use your own words.
6. In your opinion, is there a direct connection between the world of fashion and weight-related
disorders (anorexia, bulimia, etc.)? (25-50 words) [2 marks]. Express your own ideas by using your
own words.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Septiembre 2007
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Fernando Alonso
Fernando Alonso was born in Oviedo in 1981. Alonso’s father built him a kart when he was
only two years old but it was not until he was 13 that he was able to do any serious (1) racing. He
won the Spanish cadet national kart title in 1994. Two years later he won the World Junior Karting
title and he continued in karts until 1999 when he moved into car racing in the Nissan Open series in
Spain.
Good results saw him step up (2) to Formula 3000 that same year, when he also abandoned
his studies in Oviedo to dedicate himself full time to his career in sport. After an impressive (3) first
season, Alonso took the decision to become the Renault test driver in 2002, which allowed (4) him to
learn and get experience in a big team. In a single year he became team driver and in 2003, his
second season in Formula One, he began to make history, winning the Hungarian Grand Prix and
finishing sixth in the world rankings.
Life was rather more difficult in 2004 but in 2005 he won the World Championship, becoming
the youngest ever Formula One title winner. Within a couple of months, however, it was announced
(5) that he would be moving to McLaren in 2007. Despite this Alonso stayed at Renault in 2006 and
won the world title for a second time.
‘serious and ...’
make known
serious (1) and …
step up (2) and …
impressive (3) and …
allow (4) and …
announce (5) and …
significant
advance (here)
powerful
permit
sheet.
- Alonso started to take part in car racing when he was sixteen
- Alonso became a racing driver after he had participated in serious kart racing for five years
- Alonso had his first experience as a Formula One driver when he was eighteen
- Alonso left school at the age of seventeen to dedicate himself to his career in sport
sheet.
-
Alonso
Alonso
Alonso
Alonso
has been Renault’s leading driver from the beginning of his career
became Renault’s leading driver after he won the Hungarian Grand Prix
became Renault’s leading driver after he had several years of experience as test driver
became Renault’s leading driver immediately, after a season as test driver
a)
b)
c)
d)
The national kart title …
If Alonso had not …
In 2007, McLaren …
The second …
Alonsomania is the fan phenomenon around the Spanish Formula One driver Fernando Alonso. On
September 25, 2005, a huge party …… (a) in Fernando Alonso’s home town of Oviedo when the
Spanish driver …… (b) the country’s first Formula One …… (c) Champion and the youngest in sport’s
history. Over 50,000 …… (d) got together at Oviedo’s Plaza de America, chanting “Fernando,
Fernando” to celebrate their hero’s …… (e). A group of fans held up a huge banner reading
“Fernando – Thanks for making our dreams …… (f) true”.
5. From the information in the text, which are the main hits in Fernando Alonso’s career as car
racing driver? (25-50 words) [2 marks] You are expected to draw information from the text, but
please use your own words.
6. Some people think that car racing is a boring sport. What do you think? Do you like car racing?
Why? Why not? (25-50 words) [2 marks]. Express your own ideas by using your own words.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CONSEJERÍA DE EDUCACIÓN, CIENCIA E
INVESTIGACIÓN
CARTAGENA
BACHILLERATO LOGSE
Junio 2008
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
The pencil is 150 years old
The pencil as we know it was 150 years old on Sunday 30th March. We can find pencils everywhere:
at school, at home, at the office, even on the golf course. Because they are so common we tend to
take them for granted.
Pencils are the most useful yet least appreciated writing instruments of all time: the world's only
portable, lightweight invention that can draw a line 35 miles long, write an average (1) of 45,000
words, absorb 17 sharpenings and delete its own errors.
Modern pencils are the descendants of ancient (2) writing instruments. In ancient Rome, scribes
wrote on papyrus (an early form of paper) with a thin (3) metal rod called a stylus, which left a light
but readable mark. Other early styluses were made of lead*. Today we still call the core (4) of a
pencil the "lead" even though it is made from non-toxic graphite.
Graphite came into widespread use following the discovery of a large graphite deposit in Borrowdale,
England in 1564. Graphite left a darker mark than lead, but was so soft and breakable that it required
a holder. At first, sticks of graphite were wrapped in string. Later, the graphite was inserted into
wooden sticks and the wood-cased pencil was born.
The first mass-produced pencils were made in Nüremberg, Germany in 1662. There an active pencil
industry developed with famous (5) companies like Faber-Castell established in 1761, Lyra, Staedtler
and others growing throughout the 19th century industrial revolution.
Lead: a soft, grey and heavy metal.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR EACH QUESTION.
‘common and ...’
heart
known
mean
narrow
old
average (1) and …
ancient (2) and …
thin (3) and …
core (4) and …
famous (5) and …
sheet.
Pencils
Pencils
Pencils
Pencils
are
are
are
are
extremely useful and most appreciated writing instruments.
the most useful and appreciated writing instruments in history.
the most used and appreciated writing instruments of all time.
very useful but little appreciated writing instruments.
sheet.
Graphite
Graphite
Graphite
Graphite
is darker than lead, but lead is softer and more breakable than graphite.
writes darker than lead, and is also softer and more breakable than lead.
looks darker than lead, but lead is softer and more breakable than graphite.
leaves darker marks than lead, and is as soft and breakable as lead.
a) At first, people started …
b) The discovery of a large graphite deposit …
c) Famous companies like Faber-Castell …
d) Nüremberg was …
Look … (a) the end of your pencil. Most wood pencils … (b) numbered and the most common pencil
is the No. 2 pencil. The number 2 refers … (c) how hard and black the pencil graphite is. Back in the
1800s, pencil manufacturers … (d) letters instead … (e) numbers to describe the graphite. For
example, an H pencil was hard, a B pencil was black and an F pencil had a fine point. An HB pencil
was hard and black. Eventually, most pencil manufacturers … (f) using numbers to make it easier for
people to understand.
5. From the information in the text, what are the main differences between graphite and lead? (2550 words) [2 marks] You are expected to draw information from the text, but please use your own
words.
6. Which do you think are the reasons for the popularity of pencils as writing instruments? (25-50
words) [2 marks]. Express your own ideas by using your own words.
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
CARTAGENA
Septiembre 2008
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Pets
A pet is an animal kept for companionship and enjoyment, as opposed to laboratory animals,
working animals or sport animals, which are kept for economic reasons. Pets are noted for their
loyal(1) or playful characteristics, for their attractive appearance, or for their song. The two most
popular pets in most western countries have been cats and dogs. In the United States, a 2007-08
survey (2) shows that dog-owning households outnumber* those owning cats, but that the number
of pet cats is higher than dogs. Pets also seem to provide their owners with health benefits; for
instance keeping pets helps reduce stress to those who live having animals around.
Pets have the ability to stimulate their caregivers, particularly the elderly (3), giving people
someone to take care of, someone to exercise with and someone to help them overcome a physical
or psychological troubled past. There appears to be strong evidence that having a pet can help a
person lead a longer, healthier life. In a study of 92 people with severe (4) heart problems, within a
year, 11 of the 29 without pets had died, but only 3 of the 52 who had pets. A recent study
concluded that owning a pet can reduce the risk (5) of a heart attack by 2% and that pets are better
than medication in reducing blood pressure.
------------* outnumber: to be superior in number
‘loyal and ...’
review
loyal (1) and …
survey (2) and …
elderly (3) and …
severe (4) and …
risk (5) and …
danger
senior
faithful
critical
sheet.
- The text considers that any domestic animal living with a human being is a pet
- From the information in the text, pets can also be kept for economic reasons
- A basic characteristic shared by all pets is that they are a source of company and entertainment
- Only cats and dogs are proper pets, according to this text
sheet.
According to a recent survey …
-
…
…
…
…
there
there
there
there
are
are
are
are
far
far
far
far
more
more
more
more
dogs than cats
cats than dogs
dogs than cats
cats than dogs
in
in
in
in
the
the
the
the
USA,
USA,
USA,
USA,
and they are also preferred as pets
although the latter are preferred as pets
but the latter are preferred as pets
and they are also preferred as pets
a)
b)
c)
d)
People can …
Loyalty and attractive appearance …
In most western countries …
A high percentage of pet owners …
Scientists have studied the pets-and-health connection for some years now. In 1990 researchers from
New York University _______ (a) that pets could help reduce the time you ________ (b) at the
doctor’s office. In a study of people 65 and older with pets, they _______ (c) that the subjects visited
the doctor 16% less than participants without pets. “If owning companion animals ________ (d) the
number of doctor visits, if it allows people to live independently and to keep stress _______ (e)
control, then pets are a legitimate strategy for survival”, _________ (f) Alan Beck, director of the
Human-Animal Bond Institute at Purdue University.
5. According to the text, pets have been proved to be a source of health for their owners. Can you
summarize the main facts in the text that support this idea? (25-50 words) [2 marks] You are
expected to draw information from the text, but please use your own words.
6. Are you fond of animals? Why? Why not? Could you describe your pet or favourite animal? (25-50
words) [2 marks]. Express your own ideas by using your own words.
UNIVERSIDAD
DE MURCIA
REGIÓN DE MURCIA
UNIVERSIDAD POLITÉCNICA
DE CARTAGENA
PRUEBAS DE ACCESO A LA UNIVERSIDAD PARA ALUMNOS DE LOGSE (PLAN 2002)
Septiembre 2008
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
CRITERIOS Y CONVENCIONES DE CORRECCIÓN
I. CRITERIOS Y CONVENCIONES GENERALES
Es importante que todos los correctores utilicen (además, obviamente, de los mismos criterios) las
convenciones que se recomiendan, para facilitar así la tarea de los compañeros que realizarán la doble
corrección y la revisión final por parte del Coordinador.
I.1. OBSERVACIONES GENERALES PREVIAS
Los exámenes en que se mezclen colores de tinta o se utilicen marcas especiales se puntúan con cero puntos.
Ya han sido advertidos, en la hoja de Normas Generales, que se reparte al comienzo de todas las pruebas, de
que no deben hacerlo así.
Cuando en los criterios específicos de cada una de estas preguntas se alude a ERROR GRAVE DE
CORRECCIÓN, FLUIDEZ O COMPRENSIÓN debe entenderse cualquier deficiencia o inexactitud que
evidencie que el alumno no ha alcanzado los objetivos correspondientes al programa oficial de
segundo de bachillerato LOGSE
I.2. TIPOLOGÍA DE PREGUNTAS, CRITERIOS Y NORMAS GENERALES
En el examen hay dos tipos de preguntas que se corrigen de acuerdo con distintos criterios de valoración:
1) Preguntas de respuesta parcialmente controlada que no exigen la expresión abierta en inglés (1, 2 y 4): en
su corrección se valorará fundamentalmente la corrección idiomática y, cuando así se especifique, la
comprensión.
2) Preguntas de respuesta libre y creativa (3, 5, 6). En su corrección se valoran tres factores: la corrección
idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica), la fluidez expresiva y, cuando las preguntas se refieran
abiertamente al texto, la comprensión.
La convención general que se utilizará en su corrección es subrayar en la respuesta de los alumnos los
errores graves y codificarlos empleando los siguientes símbolos:
F = error de fluidez expresiva (fluency).
A = error de corrección idiomática (accuracy).
C = error de comprensión (comprehension).
F/A = cuando se den errores de fluidez y corrección en la misma estructura, es decir: no se entiende lo que
dice y además es incorrecto (gramatical, léxico-semántica u ortográficamente). En este caso se descontarán
puntos separadamente por cada apartado, de acuerdo con las especificaciones concretas de cada pregunta:
e.g.: “Conservatism is the people is not agree new ideas”
F/A
e.g.: También cabe penalizar de esta manera el uso incorrecto, mecánico y repetitivo de marcadores
textuales (“According to the text”, “From my point of view”, “In my opinion”, “Personally I think”, etc.).
Únicamente se penalizarán cuando se utilizan de forma repetitiva sólo para rellenar espacio.
II. CRITERIOS Y CONVENCIONES ESPECÍFICOS PARA CADA PREGUNTA
II.1. PREGUNTA 1 [1 punto]
II.1.1. Criterios específicos de correción
Dar 0,20 puntos sólo cuando se haya escrito la respuesta correcta (hasta un total de 1,00)
II.1.2. Respuestas correctas
loyal and faithful
survey and review
elderly and senior
severe and critical
risk and danger
II.1.3. Convenciones recomendadas para la corrección
- Señalar con un tick las respuestas correctas y con una raya oblicua o aspa las incorrectas.
- Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0,2, 0,4, 0,6, 0,8 o 1) destacándola
sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
II.2. PREGUNTA 2.1. [0,75 puntos]
Dar 0,75 puntos sólo cuando se haya escrito la respuesta correcta:
- A basic characteristic shared by all pets is that they are a source of company and entertainment
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0 o 0,75) destacándola (rodeándola con
un círculo, por ejemplo).
- According to a recent survey, there are far more dogs than cats in the USA, but the latter are
preferred as pets
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0 o 0,75) destacándola (rodeándola con
un círculo, por ejemplo).
II.4. PREGUNTA 3 [2 puntos]
1
Puntuar cada subpregunta (a, b, c, d) de 0,00 a 0,50 considerando como respuestas correctas toda secuencia
de palabras que complete cada una de las oraciones de manera plausible [comprensión] (es decir que
evidencie la comprensión del texto y del principio del enunciado) y con corrección idiomática (gramatical,
léxico-semántica, ortográfica).
1 Es importante guardar la proporcionalidad entre la longitud de la respuesta del alumno y los puntos que se descuentan por errores. Si
en una respuesta de una línea se permite un solo error de C y de A, en una respuesta de una longitud doble permitiríamos dos errores y
descontaríamos 0,12 por cada uno.
a) Comprensión (C): 0,25 puntos por respuesta; descontarlos si el alumno no parece haber comprendido
la relación entre el comienzo de la oración y lo que él mismo añade o si la respuesta contradice la
información del texto.
b) Corrección idiomática (A): 0,25 puntos por respuesta. Descontar 0,25 por errores graves o cuando la
respuesta consista casi exclusivamente en la reproducción literal (sin reajuste gramatical alguno) de frases
completas del texto. Se puede deducir entre 0,10 o 0,15 si la repetición es sólo parcial, es decir con algún
reajuste gramatical de mayor o menor complejidad.
II.4.2. Algunas respuestas posibles y sus puntuaciones respectivas
a) People can …
… enjoy a much healthier life if they have a pet (C 0’25 + A 0’25)
… lead a longer healthier life (C 0’10/0’15 + A 0) [hay comprensión del texto, sin demasiada variación
gramatical]
… help a person lead a longer, healthier life (C 0’00 + A 0’00) [hay copia directa del texto, e incorrección
gramatical]
- Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo A y C (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra correspondiente).
- Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: A: 0’25, C: 0’15
- Señalar claramente al margen la nota global obtenida en la pregunta (suma de A + C en las cuatro
subpreguntas) destacándola sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
II.5. PREGUNTA 5 [1,5 puntos]
Puntuar cada uno de los seis ‘blanks’ del texto (a, b, c, d, e, f) con 0,00 o 0,25 considerando como respuesta
correctas toda palabra o secuencia de palabras que sea plausible en ese contexto [comprensión] (es decir
que evidencie la comprensión del texto y del enunciado en que aparece) y con corrección idiomática
(gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica).
II.5.2. Algunas respuestas posibles
a) discovered, found out …
b) spent …
c) concluded, showed …
d) reduces, limits …
e) under
f) says, explains …
- Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0,25, 0,50, 0,75, 1,00, 1,25 o 1,50)
destacándola sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
II.6.1. Criterios específicos de corrección
2
a) Fluidez (F): 0,60 puntos. Calificar de 0,00 a 0,60 puntos de acuerdo con la impresión general de
fluidez: ¿se pueden captar con facilidad las ideas expresadas por el estudiante? ¿es la expresión
demasiado torpe para un estudiante de este nivel? ¿copia el alumno demasiados fragmentos del texto
original? ¿es la respuesta demasiado breve, es decir por debajo del mínimo de 25 palabras exigido
(dos renglones y medio aproximadamente)? Descontar 0,30 puntos por cada error de fluidez expresiva
detectado (incluyendo 0,30 cuando la longitud de la respuesta no llega a las 25 palabras).
b) Corrección idiomática (A): 0,60 puntos. Descontar 0,30 puntos (hasta un máximo de 0,60) por cada
error (gramatical, léxico-semántico u ortográfico) grave. Si la respuesta es demasiado breve (por
debajo de las 25 palabras o dos líneas y media) hay que descontar también 0,30 puntos de corrección
formal, pues sería absurdo que quien hubiese respondido de forma más extensa obtuviese una
puntuación menor (por haber cometido errores) que quien lo hace con suma brevedad, sin arriesgar.
c) Comprensión (C): 0,80 puntos. Calificar el ejercicio entre 0,00 y 0,80 puntos de acuerdo con el grado
de comprensión del texto mostrado en la respuesta. Descontar 0,40 por cada fallo grave de
comprensión.
- Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo F, A, C y F/A (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
- Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: F: 0,3, A: 0,3, C: 0,4.
- Dar también al margen la nota global para la pregunta (suma de F + A + C) destacándola claramente sobre
otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
3
a) Fluidez (F): 1,00 puntos. Calificar de 0,00 a 1,00 puntos de acuerdo con la impresión general de
fluidez: ¿se pueden captar con facilidad las ideas expresadas por el estudiante? ¿es la expresión
demasiado torpe para un estudiante de este nivel? ¿copia el alumno demasiados fragmentos del texto
original? ¿es la respuesta demasiado breve, es decir por debajo del mínimo de 25 palabras exigido
(dos renglones y medio aproximadamente)? Descontar 0,25 puntos por cada deficiencia de fluidez
grave que se constate (incluyendo 0,30 cuando la longitud de la respuesta no llega a las 25 palabras).
b) Corrección idiomática (A): 1,00 puntos. Descontar 0,25 puntos (hasta un máximo de 1,00) por cada
error grave (gramatical, léxico-semántico u ortográfico). Si la respuesta es demasiado breve (por
debajo de las 25 palabras o dos líneas y media) hay que descontar también 0,25 puntos de corrección
formal, pues sería absurdo que quien hubiese respondido de forma más extensa obtuviese una
puntuación menor (por haber cometido errores) que quien lo hace con suma brevedad, sin arriesgar.
- Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo F, A y F/A (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra correspondiente).
- Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: F: 0,50, A: 0,50
- Señalar claramente al margen la nota global obtenida en la pregunta (suma de F + A) destacándola sobre
otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
Es importante guardar la proporcionalidad entre la longitud de la respuesta del alumno y los puntos que se descuentan por errores.
En esta pregunta, si hasta 50 palabras se permiten dos errores de A, F y C, en una respuesta más larga (80 palabras u ocho líneas)
permitiríamos hasta tres errores de cada clase (descontando 0,20 por cada error de F y A en lugar de 0,30, y 0,25 por cada error de C
en lugar de 0,40).
3 Es importante guardar la proporcionalidad entre la longitud de la respuesta del alumno y los puntos que se descuentan por errores.
En esta pregunta, si hasta 50 palabras se permiten cuatro errores de A y F en una respuesta más larga (80 palabras u ocho líneas)
permitiríamos hasta seis errores de cada clase (descontando 0,15 por cada error de F y A en lugar de 0,25).
2
BACHILLERATO LOGSE
Junio 2009
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Hollywood Looks Overseas for Talent and Profit
In 2008, something happened at the Academy Awards (1) that had not happened since 1964. All the
winners for best acting were from outside the United States.
Daniel Day-Lewis and Tilda Swinton are British. He won best actor for "There Will Be Blood"; she won
best supporting actress for "Michael Clayton." French actress Marion Cotillard won the Oscar for best
actress for "La Vie en Rose." And Spain's Javier Bardem won best supporting actor in "No Country for
Old Men."
Hollywood is increasingly looking outside America's borders (2) for stars and profit (3).
Jonathan Taplin is a professor at the USC Annenberg School for Communication at the University of
Southern California. He says that today, about fifty-four percent of the ticket sales for Hollywood
studios now come from outside the United States.
For the last three months of 2007, foreign sales (4) totalled about 880 million dollars. But there is
fierce competition for each movie dollar.
Hollywood has lost market share in some places as other countries develop their own film industries.
For example, in the mid-eighties, American films had eighty percent of the market in South Korea.
Today that share is about forty percent.
Hollywood also faces competition from illegally copied movies, a major issue (5) to the Motion Picture
Association of America (MPAA). The trade group estimated more than eighteen billion dollars in
worldwide losses from piracy in 2005.
Hollywood reporter Alan Silverman says piracy has influenced how American movies are released. In
the past, Hollywood studios waited months after the American release of a film to release it in foreign
markets. Now, many aim to release films at the same time around the world.
frontier
selling
prize
matter
benefit
award (1) and …
border (2) and …
profit (3) and …
sale (4) and …
issue (5) and …
sheet.
About
About
About
About
54%
54%
45%
54%
of
of
of
of
the ticket sales for Hollywood studios come from the United States.
all movies are produced in Hollywood studios.
the ticket sales for Hollywood studios now come from outside the United States
the ticket sales for Hollywood studios come mainly from Europe and Asia.
sheet.
Hollywood
Hollywood
Hollywood
Hollywood
is not interested in looking outside America's borders for new actors and actresses.
has rarely looked outside the US for new stars and new markets.
is more interested than ever before in looking outside the US for stars and profit.
has never been interested in looking outside the US for new talent and new markets.
a) Hollywood star Javier Bardem was …
b) Hollywood has lost market share because …
c) Illegally copied movies are …
d) More than eighteen billion dollars …
Foreign markets may also influence how people get their movies. Different nations … (a) different
levels of technology.
Efforts to settle on … (b) next-generation DVD got a lot of attention recently. Sony's Blu-ray
technology for high-definition televisions won the competition with Toshiba's HD DVD format.
Yet DVD sales have dropped … (c) recent years. This may be a sign that people … (d) increasingly
getting their movies off the Internet. The Internet is another front in Hollywood's war on piracy. But
more … (e) that, it presents complex business questions for … (f) industry now built mostly on DVD
and ticket sales.
5. From the information in the text, what are Hollywood’s main problems? (25-50 words) [2 marks]
You are expected to draw information from the text, but please use your own words.
6. Which do you think are the reasons for copying movies illegally? (25-50 words) [2 marks]. Express
your own ideas by using your own words.
PRUEBAS DE ACCESO A LA UNIVERSIDAD PARA ALUMNOS DE LOGSE
Junio 2009
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
CRITERIOS DE VALORACIÓN
convenciones que se recomiendan, para facilitar así la tarea de los compañeros que realizarán la
doble corrección y la revisión final por parte del Coordinador.
Los exámenes en que se mezclen colores de tinta o se utilicen marcas especiales se puntúan con cero
puntos. Ya han sido advertidos, en la hoja de Normas Generales, que se reparte al comienzo de todas
las pruebas, de que no deben hacerlo así.
CORRECCIÓN, FLUIDEZ O COMPRENSIÓN debe entenderse cualquier deficiencia o inexactitud
que evidencie que el alumno no ha alcanzado los objetivos correspondientes al programa
oficial de segundo de bachillerato LOGSE
En el examen hay dos tipos de preguntas que se corrigen de acuerdo con distintos criterios de
valoración:
1)
Preguntas de respuesta parcialmente controlada que no exigen la expresión abierta en inglés
(1, 2 y 4): en su corrección se valorará fundamentalmente la corrección idiomática y, cuando
así se especifique, la comprensión.
2)
Preguntas de respuesta libre y creativa (3, 5 y 6). En su corrección se valoran tres factores:
la corrección idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica), la fluidez expresiva y,
cuando las preguntas se refieran abiertamente al texto, la comprensión.
La convención general que se utilizará en su corrección es subrayar en la respuesta de los
alumnos los errores graves y codificarlos empleando los siguientes símbolos:
F/A = cuando se den errores de fluidez y corrección en la misma estructura, es decir: no se
entiende lo que dice y además es incorrecto (gramatical, léxico-semántica u ortográficamente). En
este caso se descontarán puntos separadamente por cada apartado, de acuerdo con las
especificaciones concretas de cada pregunta:
F/A
e.g.: También cabe penalizar de esta manera el uso incorrecto, mecánico y repetitivo de
marcadores textuales (“According to the text”, “From my point of view”, “In my opinion”, “Personally
I think”, etc.). Únicamente se penalizarán cuando se utilizan de forma repetitiva sólo para
rellenar espacio.
award and prize
border and frontier
profit and benefit
sale and selling
issue and matter
- Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0,2, 0,4, 0,6, 0,8 ó 1)
About 54% of the ticket sales for Hollywood studios come mainly from Europe and Asia.
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0 ó 0,75) destacándola
(rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
Hollywood is more interested than ever before in looking outside the US for stars and profit.
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0 o 0,75) destacándola
1
Puntuar cada subpregunta (a, b, c, d) de 0,00 a 0,50 considerando como respuestas correctas toda
secuencia de palabras que complete cada una de las oraciones de manera plausible [comprensión]
(es decir que evidencie la comprensión del texto y del principio del enunciado) y con corrección
idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica).
a)
Comprensión (C): 0,25 puntos por respuesta; descontarlos si el alumno no parece haber
comprendido la relación entre el comienzo de la oración y lo que él mismo añade o si la respuesta
contradice la información del texto.
b)
Corrección idiomática (A): 0,25 puntos por respuesta. Descontar 0,25 por errores graves o
cuando la respuesta consista casi exclusivamente en la reproducción literal (sin reajuste
gramatical alguno) de frases completas del texto. Se puede deducir entre 0,10 o 0,15 si la
repetición es sólo parcial, es decir con algún reajuste gramatical de mayor o menor complejidad.
a) Hollywood star Javier Bardem was …
… awarded an Oscar for best supporting actor for his performance in "No Country for Old Men." (C
0’25 + A 0’25)
… award an Oscar for best supporting actor in "No Country for Old Men." (C 0’10/0’15 + A 0) [hay
comprensión del texto sin corrección o coherencia gramatical]
… award in "No Country for Old Men." (C 0’00 + A 0’00) [no hay comprensión del texto y falta
corrección o coherencia gramatical]
-
1
Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo A y C (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: A: 0’25, C: 0’15
Señalar claramente al margen la nota global obtenida en la pregunta (suma de A + C en las
cuatro subpreguntas) destacándola sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por
ejemplo).
Es importante guardar la proporcionalidad entre la longitud de la respuesta del alumno y los puntos
que se descuentan por errores. Si en una respuesta de una línea se permite un solo error de C y de A, en una
respuesta de una longitud doble permitiríamos dos errores y descontaríamos 0,12 por cada uno.
Puntuar cada uno de los seis ‘blanks’ del texto (a, b, c, d, e, f) con 0,00 o 0,25 considerando como
respuesta correctas toda palabra o secuencia de palabras que sea plausible en ese contexto
[comprensión] (es decir que evidencie la comprensión del texto y del enunciado en que aparece) y
con corrección idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica).
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
have
the
in
are
than
the
-
Señalar con un tick las respuestas correctas y con una raya oblicua o aspa las incorrectas.
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0,25, 0,50, 0,75, 1,00,
1,25 o 1,50) destacándola sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
2
a)
Fluidez (F): 0,60 puntos. Calificar de 0,00 a 0,60 puntos de acuerdo con la impresión
general de fluidez: ¿se pueden captar con facilidad las ideas expresadas por el estudiante? ¿es la
expresión demasiado torpe para un estudiante de este nivel? ¿copia el alumno demasiados
fragmentos del texto original? ¿es la respuesta demasiado breve, es decir por debajo del mínimo
de 25 palabras exigido (dos renglones y medio aproximadamente)? Descontar 0,30 puntos por
cada error de fluidez expresiva detectado (incluyendo 0,30 cuando la longitud de la respuesta no
llega a las 25 palabras).
b)
Corrección idiomática (A): 0,60 puntos. Descontar 0,30 puntos (hasta un máximo de
0,60) por cada error (gramatical, léxico-semántico u ortográfico) grave. Si la respuesta es
demasiado breve (por debajo de las 25 palabras o dos líneas y media) hay que descontar también
0,30 puntos de corrección formal, pues sería absurdo que quien hubiese respondido de forma
más extensa obtuviese una puntuación menor (por haber cometido errores) que quien lo hace
con suma brevedad, sin arriesgar.
c)
Comprensión (C): 0,80 puntos. Calificar el ejercicio entre 0,00 y 0,80 puntos de acuerdo
con el grado de comprensión del texto mostrado en la respuesta. Descontar 0,40 por cada fallo
grave de comprensión.
2
que se descuentan por errores. En esta pregunta, si hasta 50 palabras se permiten dos errores de A, F y C, en
una respuesta más larga (80 palabras u ocho líneas) permitiríamos hasta tres errores de cada clase
(descontando 0,20 por cada error de F y A en lugar de 0,30, y 0,25 por cada error de C en lugar de 0,40).
-
Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo F, A, C y F/A (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: F: 0,3, A: 0,3, C: 0,4.
Dar también al margen la nota global para la pregunta (suma de F + A + C) destacándola
claramente sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
3
a)
cada deficiencia de fluidez grave que se constate (incluyendo 0,30 cuando la longitud de la
respuesta no llega a las 25 palabras).
b)
1,00) por cada error grave (gramatical, léxico-semántico u ortográfico). Si la respuesta es
-
3
Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo F, A y F/A (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: F: 0,50, A: 0,50
Señalar claramente al margen la nota global obtenida en la pregunta (suma de F + A)
que se descuentan por errores. En esta pregunta, si hasta 50 palabras se permiten cuatro errores de A y F en
una respuesta más larga (80 palabras u ocho líneas) permitiríamos hasta seis errores de cada clase
(descontando 0,15 por cada error de F y A en lugar de 0,25).
BACHILLERATO LOGSE
Septiembre 2009
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
Oasis
Oasis are an English rock band, formed in Manchester in 1991, led by lead (1) guitarist and primary
songwriter Noel Gallagher and his younger brother, lead vocalist and songwriter Liam Gallagher.
Oasis are arguably the most successful group to emerge (2) during the Britpop movement of the mid1990s. Oasis have sold more than 50 million albums alone worldwide, and have had eight UK number
one singles. Liam and Noel Gallagher are the only original band members.
With the success (3) of their Mercury Prize-nominated debut album, Definitely Maybe (1994), and
their even more successful follow-up, the 19 million selling (What's the Story) Morning Glory? (1995),
coupled with a rivalry with their contemporary Blur, Oasis attained fame in the mid-1990s, and
became the leaders of the Britpop movement. The Gallagher brothers were featured regularly in
tabloid newspaper stories, and cultivated a reputation as both bad boys and a band of the people.
At the height of their fame, Oasis' third album, Be Here Now (1997), reached #1 in the UK charts, #2
in the U.S. and also became the fastest-selling album in chart history, with almost half a million
copies sold on the first day alone and just under 700,000 copies in its first week. With the loss of
founding members, the band suffered a notable drop (4) in popularity in America. However, they
found replacements and managed to soldier on and release commercially and critically successful
albums afterwards. In 2005, their sixth album Don't Believe the Truth was released becoming their
best-selling and best-received album in a decade. In November 2006, the band released (5) a "bestof" album entitled Stop the Clocks, which received great attention, especially in the UK, selling more
than one million records in three months. In February 2007, Oasis received the BRIT Award for
outstanding contribution to music.
On 25 February 2009, Oasis received the NME Award for Best British Band of 2009.
fame
chief
launched
appear
decline
lead (1) and …
emerge (2) and …
success (3) and …
drop (4) and …
released (5) and …
sheet.
Oasis
Oasis
Oasis
Oasis
are possibly the most successful group to emerge during the Britpop movement of the mid-90s.
are the most important Britpop band of the mid-90s.
have sold more than 50 million albums in the UK.
are the least successful band that emerged during the Britpop movement of the mid-90s.
sheet.
Liam and Noel Gallagher left the band while recording Be Here Now.
Oasis' Be Here Now reached #1 in the U.S. charts.
Nearly 500,000 copies of Be Here Now were sold on the first day.
Oasis sold more than 700,000 copies of their third album.
a) The group was …
b) Liam and Noel Gallagher appeared …
c) Oasis and Blur …
d) The popularity of Oasis in America …
The Battle of Britpop is the unofficial title … (a) to the 1995 singles chart battle between two popular
Britpop groups, Blur and Oasis. The two bands had had a long-running feud1 with each side
expressing their opinions of the other. On … (b) occasion Noel Gallagher of Oasis said he wished …
(c) Damon Albarn and Alex James of Blur would "catch AIDS and die" (he later apologised for his
comments). The feud between the two bands came into the mainstream … (d) 1995 when Blur and
Oasis released singles ("Country House" and "Roll With It" respectively) … (e) the same day. Blur …
(f) the first battle by 58,000 sales: "Country House" sold 274,000 copies to 216,000 copies sold of
"Roll with It".
5. From the information in the text, do you think that the Gallagher brothers’ lifestyles contributed to
their success? (25-50 words) [2 marks] You are expected to draw information from the text, but
please use your own words.
6. Are you keen on Britpop? Why? (25-50 words) [2 marks]. Express your own ideas by using your
own words.
1
Feud = enemistad
PRUEBAS DE ACCESO A LA UNIVERSIDAD PARA ALUMNOS DE LOGSE
Septiembre 2009
INGLÉS. CÓDIGO 54
CRITERIOS DE VALORACIÓN
convenciones que se recomiendan, para facilitar así la tarea de los compañeros que realizarán la
doble corrección y la revisión final por parte del Coordinador.
Los exámenes en que se mezclen colores de tinta o se utilicen marcas especiales se puntúan con cero
puntos. Ya han sido advertidos, en la hoja de Normas Generales, que se reparte al comienzo de todas
las pruebas, de que no deben hacerlo así.
CORRECCIÓN, FLUIDEZ O COMPRENSIÓN debe entenderse cualquier deficiencia o inexactitud
que evidencie que el alumno no ha alcanzado los objetivos correspondientes al programa
oficial de segundo de bachillerato LOGSE
En el examen hay dos tipos de preguntas que se corrigen de acuerdo con distintos criterios de
valoración:
1.
Preguntas de respuesta parcialmente controlada que no exigen la expresión abierta en inglés
(1, 2 y 4): en su corrección se valorará fundamentalmente la corrección idiomática y, cuando
así se especifique, la comprensión.
2.
Preguntas de respuesta libre y creativa (3, 5 y 6). En su corrección se valoran tres factores:
la corrección idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica), la fluidez expresiva y,
cuando las preguntas se refieran abiertamente al texto, la comprensión.
La convención general que se utilizará en su corrección es subrayar en la respuesta de los
alumnos los errores graves y codificarlos empleando los siguientes símbolos:
F/A = cuando se den errores de fluidez y corrección en la misma estructura, es decir: no se
entiende lo que dice y además es incorrecto (gramatical, léxico-semántica u ortográficamente). En
este caso se descontarán puntos separadamente por cada apartado, de acuerdo con las
especificaciones concretas de cada pregunta:
F/A
e.g.: También cabe penalizar de esta manera el uso incorrecto, mecánico y repetitivo de
marcadores textuales (“According to the text”, “From my point of view”, “In my opinion”, “Personally
I think”, etc.). Únicamente se penalizarán cuando se utilizan de forma repetitiva sólo para
rellenar espacio.
lead and chief
emerge and appear
success and fame
drop and decline
released and launched
- Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0,2, 0,4, 0,6, 0,8 ó 1)
Oasis is possibly the most successful group to emerge during the Britpop movement of the mid-90s.
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0 ó 0,75) destacándola
Nearly 500,000 copies of Be Here Now were sold on the first day.
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0 o 0,75) destacándola
2
Puntuar cada subpregunta (a, b, c, d) de 0,00 a 0,50 considerando como respuestas correctas toda
secuencia de palabras que complete cada una de las oraciones de manera plausible [comprensión]
(es decir que evidencie la comprensión del texto y del principio del enunciado) y con corrección
idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica).
a)
Comprensión (C): 0,25 puntos por respuesta; descontarlos si el alumno no parece haber
comprendido la relación entre el comienzo de la oración y lo que él mismo añade o si la respuesta
contradice la información del texto.
b)
Corrección idiomática (A): 0,25 puntos por respuesta. Descontar 0,25 por errores graves o
cuando la respuesta consista casi exclusivamente en la reproducción literal (sin reajuste
gramatical alguno) de frases completas del texto. Se puede deducir entre 0,10 o 0,15 si la
repetición es sólo parcial, es decir con algún reajuste gramatical de mayor o menor complejidad.
a) The group was …
… formed by Noel Gallagher and his younger brother Liam Gallagher. (C 0’25 + A 0’25)
… forming by Noel Gallagher and his younger brother Liam Gallagher. (C 0’10/0’15 + A 0) [hay
comprensión del texto sin corrección o coherencia gramatical]
… forming by lead Noel Gallagher and her younger brother Liam Gallagher. (C 0’00 + A 0’00) [no hay
comprensión del texto y falta corrección o coherencia gramatical]
-
2
Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo A y C (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: A: 0’25, C: 0’15
Señalar claramente al margen la nota global obtenida en la pregunta (suma de A + C en las
cuatro subpreguntas) destacándola sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por
ejemplo).
que se descuentan por errores. Si en una respuesta de una línea se permite un solo error de C y de A, en una
respuesta de una longitud doble permitiríamos dos errores y descontaríamos 0,12 por cada uno.
Puntuar cada uno de los seis ‘blanks’ del texto (a, b, c, d, e, f) con 0,00 o 0,25 considerando como
respuesta correctas toda palabra o secuencia de palabras que sea plausible en ese contexto
[comprensión] (es decir que evidencie la comprensión del texto y del enunciado en que aparece) y
con corrección idiomática (gramatical, léxico-semántica, ortográfica).
a) given
b) one
c) that
d) in
e) on
f) won
-
Señalar con un tick las respuestas correctas y con una raya oblicua o aspa las incorrectas.
Señalar claramente al margen la puntuación obtenida en la pregunta (0,25, 0,50, 0,75, 1,00,
1,25 o 1,50) destacándola sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
3
a)
cada error de fluidez expresiva detectado (incluyendo 0,30 cuando la longitud de la respuesta no
llega a las 25 palabras).
b)
0,60) por cada error (gramatical, léxico-semántico u ortográfico) grave. Si la respuesta es
c)
Comprensión (C): 0,80 puntos. Calificar el ejercicio entre 0,00 y 0,80 puntos de acuerdo
con el grado de comprensión del texto mostrado en la respuesta. Descontar 0,40 por cada fallo
grave de comprensión.
-
3
Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo F, A, C y F/A (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
que se descuentan por errores. En esta pregunta, si hasta 50 palabras se permiten dos errores de A, F y C, en
una respuesta más larga (80 palabras u ocho líneas) permitiríamos hasta tres errores de cada clase
(descontando 0,20 por cada error de F y A en lugar de 0,30, y 0,25 por cada error de C en lugar de 0,40).
-
Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: F: 0,3, A: 0,3, C: 0,4.
Dar también al margen la nota global para la pregunta (suma de F + A + C) destacándola
claramente sobre otras anotaciones (rodeándola con un círculo, por ejemplo).
4
a)
cada deficiencia de fluidez grave que se constate (incluyendo 0,30 cuando la longitud de la
respuesta no llega a las 25 palabras).
b)
1,00) por cada error grave (gramatical, léxico-semántico u ortográfico). Si la respuesta es
-
4
Señalar en el texto los errores de tipo F, A y F/A (subrayándolos y marcándolos con la letra
correspondiente).
Dar una nota para cada categoría al margen del ejercicio. Ejemplo: F: 0,50, A: 0,50
Señalar claramente al margen la nota global obtenida en la pregunta (suma de F + A)
que se descuentan por errores. En esta pregunta, si hasta 50 palabras se permiten cuatro errores de A y F en
una respuesta más larga (80 palabras u ocho líneas) permitiríamos hasta seis errores de cada clase
(descontando 0,15 por cada error de F y A en lugar de 0,25).

PRUEBAS DE ACCESO A LA UNIVERSIDAD PARA ALUMNOS DE

Transcripción

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Question paper - Unit 2 (6SP02) - January 2011